One of my experiments have one alternative winning by 7% but it has lower probability of winning (41%). Does it make any sense? I can't figure out the math behind it.
There is still no sufficient confidence, and I think it will normalize with more participants, but I was intrigued by this and wanted to understand it better. Does anyone have any idea why this is going on?
One of my experiments have one alternative winning by 7% but it has lower probability of winning (41%). Does it make any sense? I can't figure out the math behind it.
There is still no sufficient confidence, and I think it will normalize with more participants, but I was intrigued by this and wanted to understand it better. Does anyone have any idea why this is going on?